Quantitative Evidence Examples: AI Practice Questions for Digital SAT Test

Question 1 (Based on Prompt 1: Archaeological/Historical Research)

Passage:

Archaeologists excavating a Viking settlement in Greenland have uncovered several well-preserved woolen garments. To understand the sophistication of Viking textile production, researchers analyzed the thread counts of these garments. Historical texts suggest that finer textiles, those with a thread count exceeding 15 threads per centimeter in either the warp or weft, were indicative of advanced weaving techniques and were likely high-status items. The research team hypothesized that the settlement, though remote, had access to or produced such high-quality textiles, challenging previous notions of their isolation and resource limitations.

Data:

Question:

Which data from the table support the researchers’ hypothesis regarding the presence of high-quality textiles at the Viking settlement?

(A) Artifact VL-001, because its combined warp and weft thread count is high.

(B) Artifacts VL-002 and VL-004, because at least one of their thread counts exceeds 15 threads per centimeter.

(C) Artifact VL-003, because its thread counts are the most consistent between warp and weft.

(D) Artifact VL-005, because its weft thread count exceeds its warp thread count, indicating specialized weaving.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 7.5

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (B)
  • Reasoning: The passage defines high-quality textiles as those “with a thread count exceeding 15 threads per centimeter in either the warp or weft.”
    • Artifact VL-002 has a warp count of 16 threads/cm (exceeding 15).
    • Artifact VL-004 has a warp count of 18 threads/cm and a weft count of 17 threads/cm (both exceeding 15).
    • Artifact VL-005 has a weft count of 16 threads/cm (exceeding 15). However, option B specifically mentions VL-002 and VL-004. Let’s re-evaluate. VL-002 has 16 (warp) and 15 (weft). VL-004 has 18 (warp) and 17 (weft). Both clearly meet the “exceeding 15” criterion in at least one dimension. Artifact VL-005 has a weft count of 16, also exceeding 15. The best option needs to reflect the hypothesis about the presence of such textiles. Options B, focusing on VL-002 and VL-004, provides clear examples. If the question implied all such artifacts, it would be phrased differently. B provides specific instances that support the hypothesis.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) The passage defines the threshold based on individual warp or weft counts, not their combined sum. VL-001 has 12 and 14, neither of which exceeds 15.
    • (C) Consistency between warp and weft counts is not mentioned in the passage as an indicator of high quality according to the researchers’ criteria. VL-003’s counts (14 and 13) do not exceed 15.
    • (D) While a difference between warp and weft counts might indicate something about weaving technique, the passage explicitly ties “high-quality” to exceeding 15 threads/cm in one dimension. Although VL-005’s weft count (16) does exceed 15, the reasoning provided in option D (weft exceeding warp as indicative of specialization) is not the criterion given in the passage for high quality.

Question 2 (Based on Prompt 1: Archaeological/Historical Research)

Passage:

A research team investigated the firing temperatures of ancient pottery shards recovered from site Kelenken. It is theorized that kilns capable of reaching sustained temperatures above 900°C were necessary to produce vitrified, non-porous ceramics, a hallmark of advanced pottery technology for the period. The team analyzed five distinct shards using thermoluminescence, aiming to determine if the Kelenken potters possessed this advanced capability. The presence of ceramics fired at or above this threshold would suggest a more sophisticated level of pyrotechnological control than previously attributed to the site’s inhabitants.

Data:

Question:

Which data from the table provide evidence supporting the researchers’ theory that the Kelenken potters had the capability to produce vitrified, non-porous ceramics?

(A) Shards KK-A01 and KK-C02, as their firing temperatures are the lowest, suggesting a baseline technology.

(B) Shard KK-B01, because its firing temperature is close to the 900°C threshold.

(C) Shards KK-A02 and KK-C01, because their estimated firing temperatures are at or above 900°C.

(D) All shards, because they collectively demonstrate a range of firing temperatures.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (C)
  • Reasoning: The passage states that “kilns capable of reaching sustained temperatures above 900°C were necessary to produce vitrified, non-porous ceramics” and that firing “at or above this threshold would suggest a more sophisticated level of pyrotechnological control.”
    • Shard KK-A02 was fired at 925°C (above 900°C).
    • Shard KK-C01 was fired at 900°C (at the threshold). These two shards directly support the theory that the potters could achieve the necessary temperatures.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) Shards fired at lower temperatures (KK-A01 at 850°C, KK-C02 at 820°C) do not support the claim of achieving temperatures above 900°C; they represent the less advanced technology.
    • (B) Being “close” to the threshold (KK-B01 at 880°C) is not the same as meeting or exceeding it. The passage specifies “above 900°C” or “at or above this threshold” for the advanced capability.
    • (D) While the range is shown, the specific evidence for advanced capability comes from shards meeting the high-temperature criterion, not from the entire dataset indiscriminately. The researchers are looking for evidence of a specific

Question 3 (Based on Prompt 2: Experimental Study)

Passage:

Dr. Aris Thorne and Dr. Lena Hanson investigated the stress tolerance of a novel crop variety, Triticum experimentalis, under varying salinity levels. They hypothesized that increased atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2​) would enhance the crop’s ability to survive in saline conditions. In their controlled greenhouse experiment, seedlings were grown in hydroponic solutions with either low (50 mM NaCl) or high (150 mM NaCl) salinity. These conditions were maintained under two different atmospheric CO2​ concentrations: ambient (400 ppm) or elevated (800 ppm). The researchers measured the mean survival duration in days for seedlings in each of the four conditions, with water availability and light intensity held constant across all groups.

Data: Mean Seedling Survival Duration (Days)

Question:

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Thorne and Hanson’s hypothesis regarding the effect of carbon dioxide on Triticum experimentalis survival in saline conditions?

(A) At low salinity, seedlings in elevated CO2​ survived for 42 days, whereas at high salinity in elevated CO2​, they survived for 25 days.

(B) When atmospheric CO2​ was held constant at ambient levels, seedlings at low salinity survived longer (35 days) than those at high salinity (18 days).

(C) In conditions of high salinity (150 mM NaCl), seedlings exposed to elevated CO2​ (800 ppm) had a longer mean survival duration (25 days) than seedlings exposed to ambient CO2​ (400 ppm), which survived for 18 days.

(D) The longest mean survival duration observed was 42 days, occurring in conditions of low salinity and elevated CO2​.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0+

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (C)
  • Reasoning: Thorne and Hanson’s hypothesis is that “increased atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2​) would enhance the crop’s ability to survive in saline conditions.” This implies comparing survival durations under different CO2​ levels within the same salinity condition.
    • Option (C) directly addresses this: At high salinity (a saline condition), survival increased from 18 days (ambient CO2​) to 25 days (elevated CO2​). This supports the hypothesis that elevated CO2​ enhances survival under saline stress.
    • A similar supportive comparison exists for low salinity: survival increased from 35 days (ambient CO2​) to 42 days (elevated CO2​). Option C focuses on one clear instance.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) This choice compares survival across different salinity levels (low vs. high) while keeping CO2​ elevated. While true, it primarily demonstrates the negative impact of higher salinity, not the specific protective effect of CO2​ within a given salinity level.
    • (B) This choice describes the effect of salinity while CO2​ is held constant. It does not test the hypothesis about the role of increased CO2​.
    • (D) While this statement is factually correct from the table, it describes a single optimal condition. It doesn’t, by itself, isolate and demonstrate the specific effect of increased CO2​ on survival in saline conditions as effectively as (C) does by providing a direct comparison. The hypothesis is about enhancement due to CO2​, which requires comparing different CO2​ levels at the same salinity.

Question 4 (Based on Prompt 2: Experimental Study)

Passage:

Researchers Drs. Ramirez and Chen conducted a study on the efficacy of two novel water purification tablets, Agent Alpha and Agent Beta, in eliminating E. coli bacteria from contaminated water. Their primary claim was that Agent Beta would show significantly greater bacterial reduction than Agent Alpha when water temperature was maintained at a cool 10°C. For their experiment, contaminated water samples were treated with either Agent Alpha, Agent Beta, or a placebo. All samples were kept at a constant 10°C in an environmental chamber, and light exposure was minimized to prevent UV degradation. After a standardized treatment period of 60 minutes, the percentage reduction in E. coli colony-forming units (CFUs) was recorded.

Data: Percentage Reduction in E. coli CFUs at 10°C

Question:

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Ramirez and Chen’s specific claim regarding the comparative efficacy of Agent Alpha and Agent Beta under the specified experimental conditions?

(A) The placebo treatment resulted in only a 2% reduction in E. coli CFUs.

(B) Agent Alpha achieved a 70% reduction in E. coli CFUs when the water temperature was maintained at 10°C.

(C) At a constant temperature of 10°C, Agent Beta resulted in a 95% reduction in E. coli CFUs, while Agent Alpha resulted in a 70% reduction.

(D) The average initial CFU/mL was consistent across all treatment groups, ensuring a fair comparison.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 7.5

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (C)
  • Reasoning: The researchers’ specific claim is that “Agent Beta would show significantly greater bacterial reduction than Agent Alpha when water temperature was maintained at a cool 10°C.”
    • Option (C) directly compares the percentage reduction of Agent Beta (95%) and Agent Alpha (70%) under the specified condition (10°C). The data show 95% > 70%, supporting the claim that Agent Beta had greater efficacy.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) The placebo result is important context for the experiment (showing what happens without an active agent), but it doesn’t directly support the comparative claim between Agent Alpha and Agent Beta.
    • (B) This statement describes the performance of Agent Alpha in isolation. While true, it doesn’t make the comparison necessary to support the researchers’ specific claim about Agent Beta being more effective than Agent Alpha.
    • (D) Consistent initial CFU/mL is a feature of good experimental design (controlling a variable), but it is not a result that supports the claim about the agents’ comparative efficacy. It ensures the comparison is valid, but it isn’t the data that demonstrates the difference in efficacy.

Question 5 (Based on Prompt 3: Correlational Study)

Passage:

A study by psychologists Davies and Eriksson explored the relationship between daily screen time (in hours) and self-reported sleep quality (rated 1-10, higher indicating better quality) among adolescents. Participants (N=50) logged their screen time and rated their sleep quality each day for two weeks across three distinct contexts: weekdays during the school term, weekends during the school term, and weekdays during a school holiday period. The researchers analyzed the correlation between screen time and sleep quality for each context, recalling that correlation coefficients (r) range from -1 to 1, where values further from 0 indicate stronger relationships. They concluded that the negative association between screen time and sleep quality was strongest during weekdays of the school term.

Data: Correlation Coefficients (r) between Screen Time and Sleep Quality

Question:

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Davies and Eriksson’s conclusion about the comparative strength of the correlations?

(A) The correlation for weekdays during the school term (-0.58) is negative, while the correlation for weekends (-0.32) is also negative.

(B) The absolute value of the correlation for weekdays during the school term (|-0.58| = 0.58) is greater than the absolute values for weekends (|-0.32| = 0.32) and holiday weekdays (|-0.41| = 0.41).

(C) The correlation for weekends during the school term (-0.32) is the closest to 0, indicating the weakest relationship.

(D) All recorded correlations are negative, suggesting screen time consistently reduces sleep quality across all contexts.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (B)
  • Reasoning: The passage states, “values further from 0 indicate stronger relationships.” The researchers concluded that the negative association “was strongest during weekdays of the school term.” To compare strength, we must compare the absolute values of the correlation coefficients.
    • Weekdays (School Term): |-0.58| = 0.58
    • Weekends (School Term): |-0.32| = 0.32
    • Weekdays (School Holiday): |-0.41| = 0.41 Since 0.58 is greater than 0.32 and 0.41, the correlation for weekdays during the school term is indeed the strongest. Option (B) correctly identifies this comparison of absolute values.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) This statement correctly notes the direction (negative) of two correlations but does not compare their strength, which is the focus of the researchers’ conclusion.
    • (C) While true that the correlation for weekends is closest to 0 and thus weakest, the researchers’ conclusion was about where the relationship was strongest, not weakest. This choice, though factually derivable, doesn’t directly support the stated conclusion.
    • (D) This statement makes a generalization about the direction and implication of the correlations. While all are negative, it doesn’t specifically address the comparative strength which is the core of the researchers’ conclusion. The conclusion is about which context shows the strongest association, not just that all associations are negative.

Question 6 (Based on Prompt 3: Correlational Study)

Passage:

Researchers investigated the link between daily caffeine intake (in milligrams) and self-perceived daytime alertness (rated on a scale of 1 to 7, where 7 is most alert). They monitored 100 office workers over a month, collecting data in two conditions: standard workdays and days involving critical project deadlines. Correlations between caffeine intake and alertness were calculated. The study reminded readers that correlations closer to +1 or -1 are strong, while those closer to 0 are weak. The researchers hypothesized that the positive relationship between caffeine intake and alertness would be more pronounced (stronger) on days with critical project deadlines compared to standard workdays.

Data: Correlation (r) between Caffeine Intake and Daytime Alertness

Question:

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers’ hypothesis about the strength of the correlation in different conditions?

(A) On standard workdays, the correlation was +0.25, indicating a weak positive relationship.

(B) The correlation of +0.48 on critical project deadline days is further from 0 than the correlation of +0.25 on standard workdays.

(C) Both correlations are positive, suggesting caffeine generally increases alertness in both conditions.

(D) The difference in correlation coefficients between the two conditions is 0.23.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 7.5

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (B)
  • Reasoning: The researchers hypothesized that the positive relationship would be “more pronounced (stronger)” on deadline days. Strength of correlation is determined by how far the coefficient is from 0.
    • Standard Workdays: r = +0.25 (distance from 0 is 0.25)
    • Critical Project Deadline Days: r = +0.48 (distance from 0 is 0.48) Since 0.48 is further from 0 than 0.25, the correlation on deadline days is stronger, supporting the hypothesis. Option (B) accurately captures this comparison of distances from 0.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) While this statement is a correct interpretation of the data for standard workdays, it doesn’t make the comparison between conditions necessary to support the hypothesis about which condition shows a stronger
    • (C) This statement notes the direction of the correlations but doesn’t address the comparative strength, which is the focus of the hypothesis.
    • (D) Calculating the difference is a mathematical operation on the data, but simply stating the difference doesn’t explain why this supports the hypothesis. The support comes from the fact that the deadline day correlation is further from 0, indicating a stronger relationship as per the passage’s definition of correlation strength.

Question 7 (Based on Prompt 4: Analytical Chemistry Research)

Passage:

Astrochemists analyzing meteorite sample ALM-001 sought to determine if its complex organic molecules, particularly polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), were formed in situ in space or were the result of terrestrial contamination after landing. They employed high-resolution gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS) to identify specific PAHs. A crucial part of their methodology involved analyzing a control sample: desert soil collected from the meteorite’s recovery site, which represents a potential source of contamination. The researchers concluded that certain PAHs in ALM-001 were likely extraterrestrial in origin, rather than solely from earthly contamination.

Data: Presence (+) / Absence (-) of Selected PAHs

Question:

Which data from the table best support the researchers’ conclusion that certain PAHs in ALM-001 were likely extraterrestrial in origin?

(A) Naphthalene and Anthracene are present in both the meteorite and the desert soil control.

(B) Phenanthrene and Perylene are present in meteorite ALM-001 but are absent in the desert soil control.

(C) Pyrene is present in meteorite ALM-001, indicating complex organic chemistry.

(D) The desert soil control contains Naphthalene, Anthracene, and Pyrene.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0+

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (B)
  • Reasoning: The researchers are trying to distinguish between extraterrestrial origin and terrestrial contamination. If a molecule is found in the meteorite but not in the potential contamination source (desert soil), it strengthens the argument for extraterrestrial origin.
    • Phenanthrene: Present in ALM-001, Absent in Desert Soil.
    • Perylene: Present in ALM-001, Absent in Desert Soil. These findings directly support the conclusion that these specific PAHs are likely not from contamination at the recovery site and thus could be extraterrestrial.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) If Naphthalene and Anthracene are in both, it suggests they could be contaminants (or also extraterrestrial, but their presence in the soil makes contamination a strong possibility). This does not uniquely support an extraterrestrial origin; it points towards ambiguity or contamination for these specific molecules.
    • (C) The mere presence of Pyrene in the meteorite, while indicative of organic chemistry, doesn’t address the contamination question, as Pyrene is also found in the desert soil, making its origin ambiguous in this context.
    • (D) This describes the composition of the control sample. While useful information, it doesn’t directly support the conclusion about the meteorite’s PAHs being extraterrestrial. In fact, it highlights which molecules in the meteorite could be contaminants.

Question 8 (Based on Prompt 4: Analytical Chemistry Research)

Passage:

A team of scientists investigated the composition of a newly discovered interstellar ice analogue, Sample X, created in a laboratory vacuum chamber simulating deep space conditions. Their goal was to ascertain if complex prebiotic molecules, specifically amino acids, could form under such conditions. A key concern in such experiments is differentiating between molecules truly formed in situ and those introduced as contaminants from the laboratory environment. To address this, a “blank” sample (Control B), consisting of the substrate on which Sample X was formed, was processed and analyzed using liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry (LC-MS/MS) alongside Sample X. The researchers claimed that glycine, a simple amino acid, was synthesized in Sample X and was not a mere contaminant.

Data: Detection of Selected Amino Acids

Question:

Which finding from the data table best supports the researchers’ claim regarding the synthesis of glycine in Sample X?

(A) Alanine was detected in both Sample X and Control B.

(B) Serine was not detected in either Sample X or Control B.

(C) Glycine was detected in Sample X but was not detected in Control B.

(D) Valine was detected in Sample X, indicating amino acid presence.

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (C)
  • Reasoning: The researchers claim glycine was synthesized in Sample X and was not a contaminant. To support this, glycine should be present in Sample X but absent from the control sample (which would reveal contamination).
    • The table shows Glycine: Detected in Sample X, Not Detected in Control B. This pattern is consistent with glycine being formed in Sample X rather than being a background contaminant from the substrate or lab environment.
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) If Alanine is detected in both samples, it suggests Alanine is likely a contaminant present in the experimental setup or substrate, or at least its origin in Sample X is ambiguous. This does not support the specific claim about glycine.
    • (B) The absence of Serine in both samples provides no information about whether glycine was synthesized or was a contaminant. It simply indicates Serine was not formed or present under these conditions.
    • (D) The detection of Valine in Sample X, while showing an amino acid is present, doesn’t support the claim about glycine’s synthesis free of contamination, because Valine was also found in Control B, indicating it is likely a contaminant.

Question 9 (Based on Prompt 5: Government Agency Annual Data Report)

Passage:

The National Renewable Energy Directorate’s (NRED) latest annual report details shifts in energy generation sources across the country. The report categorizes energy into conventional thermal, nuclear, and renewable sources, with renewables further broken down into hydro, solar, and wind. A key finding highlighted an overall increase in the total gigawatt-hours (GWh) generated from all renewable sources compared to the previous year. Furthermore, the report made a specific comparative claim: the percentage increase in generation from wind power was more than double the percentage increase in generation from solar power. The NRED aims to use these findings to guide future investment strategies. Data for the percentage increase from the previous year are as follows:

Data: Year-over-Year Percentage Increase in Energy Generation

Question:

Which of the following statements best completes the sentence below, according to the data provided?

The NRED report’s comparative claim that the percentage increase in wind power generation was more than double that of solar power is supported by the data showing that wind power increased by _______, while solar power increased by _______.

(A) 16.0%; 5.0%

(B) 12.0%; 7.5%

(C) 16.0%; 7.5%

(D) 5.0%; 16.0%

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0+

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (C)
  • Reasoning: The passage states the comparative claim: “the percentage increase in generation from wind power was more than double the percentage increase in generation from solar power.” We need to find the data points that support this.
    • Wind power increase = 16.0%
    • Solar power increase = 7.5% Is 16.0% more than double 7.5%? Double 7.5% is 2 * 7.5% = 15.0%. Since 16.0% > 15.0%, the claim is supported. Option (C) correctly fills in the blanks with these respective percentages: “wind power increased by 16.0%, while solar power increased by 7.5%.”
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) This uses the hydro increase (5.0%) for solar. 16.0% is more than double 5.0% (which is 10.0%), but 5.0% is not the solar increase.
    • (B) This uses the “All Renewables” increase (12.0%) for wind. 12.0% is not more than double 7.5% (which is 15.0%).
    • (D) This swaps the values for wind and solar, and incorrectly implies solar increased more than wind.

Question 10 (Based on Prompt 5: Government Agency Annual Data Report)

Passage:

The Department of Digital Economy’s annual “National Connectivity Survey” tracks trends in internet access and usage. Data are categorized by access type (e.g., fixed broadband, mobile internet) and by demographic groups (e.g., urban, rural). The most recent survey reported a general rise in overall internet penetration across all regions compared to the 2022 figures. Specifically, the report emphasized a significant development: the percentage point increase in mobile internet access in rural areas was notably greater than the percentage point increase in fixed broadband access in urban areas between 2022 and 2023. This finding is crucial for infrastructure planning.

Data: Internet Access Penetration (% of Population) and Year-over-Year Percentage Point Increase

Question:

To complete the statement from the report’s summary, “The survey data confirm our specific finding that the growth in mobile internet access in rural areas, which saw a _______ percentage point increase, substantially outpaced the growth of fixed broadband in urban areas, which experienced a _______ percentage point increase,” which figures should be inserted?

(A) 5.0; 8.0

(B) 8.0; 5.0

(C) 3.0; 5.0

(D) 6.0; 5.0

Difficulty Level: IELTS 8.0

Explanation:

• Correct Answer: (B)
  • Reasoning: The statement highlights that “the percentage point increase in mobile internet access in rural areas was notably greater than the percentage point increase in fixed broadband access in urban areas.”
    • From the table, the “Percentage Point Increase (2022-2023)” for “Mobile Internet – Rural” is 8.0.
    • From the table, the “Percentage Point Increase (2022-2023)” for “Fixed Broadband – Urban” is 5.0. The statement structure is: “mobile internet access in rural areas, which saw a [figure for mobile rural] percentage point increase, substantially outpaced the growth of fixed broadband in urban areas, which experienced a [figure for fixed urban] percentage point increase.” Thus, 8.0 should be the first figure and 5.0 the second. Option (B) provides these figures in the correct order. (8.0 > 5.0, so it “substantially outpaced”).
  • Incorrect Answer Explanations:
    • (A) This reverses the correct figures. 5.0 (fixed urban) did not outpace 8.0 (mobile rural).
    • (C) This uses the figure for “Fixed Broadband – Rural” (3.0) instead of “Mobile Internet – Rural” for the first blank.
    • (D) This uses the “Overall Internet Penetration” increase (6.0) for the first blank, which is not the specific category mentioned (mobile internet in rural areas).